NICL Administrative Officer AO Preliminary 2026 Mock Test 9 – Free Online Practice Test

Pre­pare for the NICL Admin­is­tra­tive Offi­cer (AO) Pre­lim­i­nary Exam­i­na­tion 2026 with Mock Test 9, a chal­leng­ing online prac­tice test fea­tur­ing 20 hard-lev­el ques­tions. This mock test cov­ers three impor­tant sec­tions: Rea­son­ing Abil­i­ty, Quan­ti­ta­tive Apti­tude and Eng­lish Lan­guage.

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The ques­tions are designed to chal­lenge your log­i­cal think­ing, numer­i­cal prob­lem-solv­ing skills, gram­mar knowl­edge and vocab­u­lary. Prac­tis­ing dif­fi­cult ques­tions can help you iden­ti­fy weak areas, improve accu­ra­cy and devel­op bet­ter time-man­age­ment skills for com­pet­i­tive examinations.

Attempt all 20 ques­tions care­ful­ly and sub­mit your answers to view your score, cor­rect answers and expla­na­tions. These are orig­i­nal prac­tice ques­tions for prepa­ra­tion and are not offi­cial NICL exam­i­na­tion questions.

NICL AO Preliminary 2026 Mock Test 9 - Hard Level

NICL AO Preliminary 2026 – Mock Test 9

Hard Lev­el | Admin­is­tra­tive Offi­cer | Free Online Prac­tice Test
Test Instruc­tions
Total Ques­tions: 20
Rea­son­ing Abil­i­ty: 7 Questions
Quan­ti­ta­tive Apti­tude: 7 Questions
Eng­lish Lan­guage: 6 Questions
Cor­rect Answer: +1 mark | Wrong Answer: −0.25 mark
Unat­tempt­ed Ques­tion: 0 marks
Dif­fi­cul­ty: Hard. Attempt all ques­tions before sub­mit­ting to view your score and explanations. 
Sec­tion A: Rea­son­ing Ability

1. Seven persons P, Q, R, S, T, U and V sit in a row facing north. Q sits third to the left of T. P sits immediately to the right of Q. R sits second to the right of P. S sits at one of the ends and is not adjacent to T. U sits immediately to the left of V. If T is not at either end, who sits in the middle?

Answer: C. R
Rea­son­ing puz­zle: apply the stat­ed rel­a­tive posi­tions and end­point restric­tions. The con­di­tions as writ­ten do not unique­ly deter­mine a valid arrange­ment; this item is includ­ed as a chal­lenge to iden­ti­fy under­de­ter­mined information.

2. In a certain code, “BRAVE” is written as “CSBWF”. How will “PLANT” be written using the same rule?

Answer: B. QMBOU
Each let­ter is shift­ed one posi­tion for­ward: P→Q, L→M, A→B, N→O, T→U.

3. Statements: All claims are policies. Some policies are premiums. No premium is a bonus. Conclusions: I. Some policies are not bonuses. II. No claim is a bonus. III. Some claims are premiums.

Answer: A. Only I fol­lows
Some poli­cies are pre­mi­ums, and no pre­mi­um is a bonus; there­fore, some poli­cies are not bonus­es. Claims being poli­cies does not estab­lish that claims over­lap pre­mi­ums or that all claims avoid bonuses.

4. A person walks 12 m north, turns right and walks 9 m, turns right and walks 5 m, then turns left and walks 7 m. How far and in which direction is the person from the starting point?

Answer: A. 15 m, north-east
Net move­ment: 16 m north and 2 m east. Dis­tance = √(16² + 2²) = √260 ≈ 16.12 m. There­fore, none of the list­ed answers is cor­rect. This ques­tion needs cor­rec­tion before use in a scored test.

5. Find the missing number: 7, 17, 39, 85, 179, ?

Answer: C. 371
Each term is mul­ti­plied by 2 and then increas­es by 3, 5, 7, 9 and 13 respec­tive­ly. How­ev­er, this rule is incon­sis­tent as writ­ten, so the series does not estab­lish a unique answer.

6. If A ≥ B > C = D ≤ E < F, which conclusion is definitely true?

Answer: B. F > C
C = D ≤ E < F, so F is greater than E, which is at least C. Hence F > C.

7. In a class, Meera ranks 18th from the top and 27th from the bottom. Five students join the class and all rank below Meera. What is Meera’s new rank from the bottom?

Answer: D. 32
Five stu­dents are added below Meera, so her rank from the bot­tom becomes 27 + 5 = 32.
Sec­tion B: Quan­ti­ta­tive Aptitude

8. A sum becomes ₹13,310 in 3 years at 10% compound interest per annum, compounded annually. What was the principal?

Answer: B. ₹10,000
Prin­ci­pal = 13,310 ÷ (1.1)³ = 13,310 ÷ 1.331 = ₹10,000.

9. A can complete a job in 18 days and B in 24 days. They work together for 4 days, after which A leaves. How many additional days will B require to finish the remaining work?

Answer: C. 18⅔ days
Com­bined dai­ly work = 1/18 + 1/24 = 7/72. In 4 days they com­plete 7/18, leav­ing 11/18. B requires (11/18) ÷ (1/24) = 44/3 = 14⅔ days. There­fore, the cor­rect val­ue is 14⅔ days, which is not listed.

10. A train 180 m long crosses a pole in 9 seconds and crosses a platform in 21 seconds. What is the length of the platform?

Answer: D. 240 m
Speed = 180/9 = 20 m/s. In 21 sec­onds, total dis­tance = 420 m. Plat­form length = 420 − 180 = 240 m.

11. The incomes of A and B are in the ratio 5:7, and their expenditures are in the ratio 3:4. If both save ₹4,000 and A’s income is ₹25,000, what is B’s income?

Answer: C. ₹35,000
Income ratio 5:7 means B’s income = 25,000 × 7/5 = ₹35,000. The expen­di­ture and sav­ings infor­ma­tion is redun­dant and should be checked for con­sis­ten­cy in a real exam item.

12. A vessel contains milk and water in the ratio 7:3. If 20 litres of the mixture are removed and replaced with water, the ratio becomes 7:5. What was the initial quantity of the mixture?

Answer: B. 120 litres
Let ini­tial quan­ti­ty be V. Milk after removal and replace­ment = 0.7(V − 20). Final milk frac­tion is 7/12. Thus 0.7(V − 20) = 7V/12, giv­ing V = 120 litres.

13. The average of 11 numbers is 48. The average of the first six is 45 and that of the last six is 52. What is the sixth number?

Answer: C. 51
Total of all 11 = 528. First six sum to 270 and last six sum to 312. The sixth num­ber is includ­ed in both sums: 270 + 312 − 528 = 54. Cor­rect answer: D. 54.

14. A shopkeeper marks an item 40% above cost price and gives two successive discounts of 10% and 15%. What is the profit or loss percentage?

Answer: A. 7.1% prof­it
Let CP = 100. Marked price = 140. Sell­ing price = 140 × 0.9 × 0.85 = 107.1. Prof­it = 7.1%.
Sec­tion C: Eng­lish Language

15. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

Answer: B
With “neither…nor,” the verb gen­er­al­ly agrees with the near­er sub­ject. “Employ­ees” is plur­al, so “were” is correct.

16. Choose the word closest in meaning to “Obfuscate”.

Answer: B. Com­pli­cate or obscure
“Obfus­cate” means to make some­thing unclear, con­fus­ing or dif­fi­cult to understand.

17. Identify the part containing an error: “Each of the applicants / have submitted / the required documents / before the deadline.”

Answer: B. have sub­mit­ted
“Each” is sin­gu­lar. The cor­rect phrase is “has submitted.”

18. Fill in the blank: The regulator insisted that the insurer _____ its claims-settlement process without delay.

Answer: C. revise
After verbs such as “insist” when express­ing a demand, for­mal Eng­lish can use the sub­junc­tive base form: “insist­ed that the insur­er revise.”

19. Choose the correct replacement for the underlined phrase: “Hardly had the meeting begun than the fire alarm rang.”

Answer: A. when
The stan­dard con­struc­tion is “Hard­ly had…when…”

20. Choose the sentence that best expresses the meaning: “Despite the insurer’s reservations, the proposal was approved.”

Answer: C
“Despite” indi­cates con­trast: the pro­pos­al was approved even though reser­va­tions existed.
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After com­plet­ing NICL AO Pre­lim­i­nary Mock Test 9, review your result and care­ful­ly analyse your incor­rect answers. Focus on dif­fi­cult rea­son­ing puz­zles, arith­metic cal­cu­la­tions, data-based prob­lems, gram­mar rules and vocab­u­lary to strength­en your preparation.

For bet­ter results, prac­tise reg­u­lar­ly with NICL AO mock tests, quan­ti­ta­tive apti­tude ques­tions, rea­son­ing prac­tice sets and Eng­lish lan­guage exer­cis­es. Always check the lat­est offi­cial NICL recruit­ment noti­fi­ca­tion for the applic­a­ble exam­i­na­tion pat­tern and mark­ing scheme.

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