UPESSC UP TGT & UP PGT 2026 Mock Test 5 – Hard Level Free Online Practice Test

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Pre­pare for the UP TGT and UP PGT 2026 exam­i­na­tions with Mock Test 5, a hard-lev­el online prac­tice test fea­tur­ing 20 chal­leng­ing mul­ti­ple-choice ques­tions. This prac­tice set is designed to help can­di­dates strength­en con­cep­tu­al under­stand­ing, ana­lyt­i­cal think­ing, rea­son­ing abil­i­ty and prob­lem-solv­ing skills.

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The test includes ques­tions cov­er­ing edu­ca­tion­al psy­chol­o­gy, teach­ing apti­tude, assess­ment meth­ods, research method­ol­o­gy, Indi­an Con­sti­tu­tion, his­to­ry, geog­ra­phy, eco­nom­ics, gen­er­al sci­ence, math­e­mat­ics, log­i­cal rea­son­ing, envi­ron­men­tal sci­ence and Eng­lish lan­guage. These orig­i­nal prac­tice ques­tions are intend­ed to help can­di­dates improve accu­ra­cy, iden­ti­fy weak areas and build con­fi­dence for com­pet­i­tive examinations.

Attempt all 20 ques­tions and sub­mit your answers to view your score, cor­rect answers and detailed expla­na­tions. For the best results, review every incor­rect answer and revise the relat­ed con­cepts before attempt­ing anoth­er mock test.

UPESSC UP TGT PGT 2026 Mock Test 5 - Hard Level

UPESSC UP TGT & UP PGT 2026
Mock Test 5 – Hard Level

20 Chal­leng­ing Orig­i­nal Ques­tions | Instant Result | Detailed Explanations

Prac­tice Test Instructions
  • Total ques­tions: 20
  • Prac­tice scor­ing: +3 for each cor­rect answer
  • Prac­tice penal­ty: −1 for each incor­rect answer
  • Unat­tempt­ed ques­tions: 0 marks
  • Max­i­mum prac­tice score: 60 marks
  • Choose one option per ques­tion, then sub­mit to view answers and explanations.

This is an orig­i­nal mixed-top­ic prac­tice set, not an offi­cial UPESSC paper. The scor­ing above is for prac­tice; ver­i­fy the applic­a­ble mark­ing scheme in the offi­cial notification.

Ques­tions answered: 0 / 20
Edu­ca­tion & Pedagogy

1. A teacher asks students to compare competing explanations, evaluate evidence and defend a conclusion. Which level of the revised Bloom’s taxonomy is most directly demonstrated by defending a conclusion against explicit criteria?

Cor­rect answer: C. Eval­u­ate. Eval­u­a­tion involves mak­ing judg­ments using cri­te­ria or stan­dards. Cre­at­ing is a sep­a­rate high­er-order cat­e­go­ry involv­ing the pro­duc­tion of a new or coher­ent product.
Edu­ca­tion & Pedagogy

2. In a class, a learner solves a problem independently after receiving graduated hints but could not solve it alone initially. This most directly illustrates:

Cor­rect answer: B. Zone of Prox­i­mal Devel­op­ment. Vygot­sky’s ZPD con­cerns tasks a learn­er can accom­plish with guid­ance but can­not yet com­plete inde­pen­dent­ly. Grad­u­at­ed sup­port is com­mon­ly called scaffolding.
Assess­ment

3. A mathematics test consistently gives nearly identical scores on repeated administrations, but its questions do not adequately represent the prescribed syllabus. The test most clearly has:

Cor­rect answer: A. Reli­a­bil­i­ty con­cerns score con­sis­ten­cy. Con­tent valid­i­ty con­cerns whether the assess­ment ade­quate­ly rep­re­sents the intend­ed con­tent domain. A test may be reli­able with­out ade­quate­ly mea­sur­ing the intend­ed construct.
Research Method­ol­o­gy

4. A researcher randomly assigns students to two teaching methods and compares their post-test scores, while controlling the same initial achievement level. Which design is most appropriate to describe this study?

Cor­rect answer: B. Exper­i­men­tal research. The researcher manip­u­lates the teach­ing method and ran­dom­ly allo­cates par­tic­i­pants to groups. These are key fea­tures of an exper­i­men­tal design.
Edu­ca­tion­al Psychology

5. Which classroom practice best reflects formative assessment rather than merely summative assessment?

Cor­rect answer: C. For­ma­tive assess­ment gath­ers evi­dence dur­ing learn­ing and uses it to adjust teach­ing and help stu­dents improve. Sum­ma­tive assess­ment pri­mar­i­ly eval­u­ates achieve­ment at a par­tic­u­lar endpoint.
Indi­an Constitution

6. Which constitutional provision empowers the Supreme Court to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

Cor­rect answer: A. Arti­cle 32. Arti­cle 32 guar­an­tees the right to move the Supreme Court for enforce­ment of Fun­da­men­tal Rights and empow­ers it to issue appro­pri­ate direc­tions, orders or writs.
Indi­an Polity

7. A Money Bill is certified as such in the Lok Sabha. Which statement about the Rajya Sabha’s role is correct?

Cor­rect answer: C. Under Arti­cle 109, the Rajya Sab­ha can make rec­om­men­da­tions with­in 14 days. The Lok Sab­ha may accept or reject those recommendations.
Mod­ern Indi­an History

8. Which event immediately led Mahatma Gandhi to call off the Non-Cooperation Movement in 1922?

Cor­rect answer: B. Chau­ri Chau­ra inci­dent. Fol­low­ing vio­lence at Chau­ri Chau­ra in Feb­ru­ary 1922, Gand­hi with­drew the Non-Coop­er­a­tion Move­ment, argu­ing that the move­ment had depart­ed from non-vio­lent principles.
Indi­an Geography

9. Which combination best explains why the western coast of India receives heavy rainfall during the southwest monsoon?

Cor­rect answer: B. Mois­ture-bear­ing Ara­bi­an Sea winds rise along the West­ern Ghats, cool and con­dense, pro­duc­ing sub­stan­tial oro­graph­ic rain­fall on the wind­ward side.
Eco­nom­ics

10. If the Reserve Bank of India raises the repo rate, all else being equal, which is the most direct intended monetary-policy effect?

Cor­rect answer: C. A high­er repo rate can raise bor­row­ing costs across the finan­cial sys­tem, tend­ing to mod­er­ate cred­it growth and demand. The actu­al effect depends on trans­mis­sion and broad­er eco­nom­ic conditions.
Gen­er­al Science

11. A catalyst increases the rate of a chemical reaction primarily by:

Cor­rect answer: B. A cat­a­lyst pro­vides an alter­na­tive path­way with low­er acti­va­tion ener­gy. It does not change the equi­lib­ri­um con­stant at a fixed tem­per­a­ture or the over­all ther­mo­dy­nam­ic change.
Biol­o­gy

12. In a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine constitutes 20% of all bases. What percentage is guanine?

Cor­rect answer: B. 30%. Char­gaff’s rules give A = T and G = C. If A is 20%, T is 20%; the remain­ing 60% is shared equal­ly by G and C, giv­ing G = 30%.
Physics

13. A convex lens has focal length +20 cm. An object is placed 30 cm in front of it. Using the Cartesian sign convention, where is the image formed?

Cor­rect answer: B. With f = +20 cm and u = −30 cm, the lens for­mu­la 1/f = 1/v − 1/u gives 1/v = 1/20 − 1/30 = 1/60. There­fore v = +60 cm, on the oppo­site side of the lens.
Math­e­mat­ics

14. If the roots of x² − 7x + k = 0 differ by 1, what is the value of k?

Cor­rect answer: B. 12. For roots r and s, r+s=7 and |r−s|=1. Thus rs = ((r+s)² − (r−s)²)/4 = (49−1)/4 = 12. Since rs=k, k=12.
Math­e­mat­ics

15. A can complete a task in 12 days and B in 18 days. They work together for 4 days, after which A leaves. How many additional days will B need to finish the remaining work?

Cor­rect answer: C. 8 days. Their com­bined dai­ly work is 1/12 + 1/18 = 5/36. In 4 days they com­plete 5/9, leav­ing 4/9. B needs (4/9) ÷ (1/18) = 8 days.
Log­i­cal Reasoning

16. Statements: All researchers are readers. Some readers are teachers. No teacher is careless. Which conclusion necessarily follows?

Cor­rect answer: C. Some read­ers are teach­ers, and no teacher is care­less. There­fore, those read­ers who are teach­ers are not care­less. The state­ments do not estab­lish that researchers are teach­ers or that all researchers are non-careless.
Research & Statistics

17. A distribution has a long tail extending to the right. In a typical positively skewed distribution, which ordering is most likely?

Cor­rect answer: C. In a typ­i­cal pos­i­tive­ly skewed dis­tri­b­u­tion, the long right tail pulls the mean to the right, so mode < medi­an < mean. This is a com­mon pat­tern, not an absolute rule for every pos­si­ble distribution.
Indi­an Education

18. Which statement best captures the principle of constructive alignment in course design?

Cor­rect answer: A. Con­struc­tive align­ment, asso­ci­at­ed with John Big­gs, aligns intend­ed learn­ing out­comes, learn­ing-teach­ing activ­i­ties and assess­ment so stu­dents prac­tise and demon­strate the intend­ed learning.
Envi­ron­men­tal Science

19. A lake receives excessive nitrogen and phosphorus runoff, followed by algal blooms and a decline in dissolved oxygen. This process is best described as:

Cor­rect answer: B. Eutroph­i­ca­tion. Excess nutri­ents stim­u­late algal growth. When the algae die and decom­pose, micro­bial activ­i­ty con­sumes dis­solved oxy­gen, poten­tial­ly caus­ing hypox­ia and harm­ing aquat­ic life.
Eng­lish Language

20. Choose the grammatically correct sentence.

Cor­rect answer: B. With the cor­rel­a­tive con­junc­tion “neither…nor”, the verb gen­er­al­ly agrees with the near­er sub­ject. Here “teach­ers” is plur­al, so “were” is appropriate.

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Dis­claimer: This is an inde­pen­dent edu­ca­tion­al prac­tice test. It is not affil­i­at­ed with or endorsed by UPESSC. Refer to the offi­cial com­mis­sion web­site and the rel­e­vant sub­ject syl­labus for cur­rent exam­i­na­tion information.

After com­plet­ing UPESSC UP TGT & UP PGT 2026 Mock Test 5, ana­lyze your per­for­mance and focus on the top­ics where you need improve­ment. Reg­u­lar prac­tice, con­cept revi­sion and time man­age­ment can help you pre­pare more effec­tive­ly for the examination.

For fur­ther prepa­ra­tion, prac­tise more UP TGT mock tests, UP PGT mock tests, teach­ing apti­tude ques­tions, ped­a­gogy prac­tice sets, sub­ject-wise MCQs, impor­tant ques­tions and com­pet­i­tive exam­i­na­tion prac­tice tests on TillEx­am.

Vis­it TillExam.com for more free online prac­tice tests and study resources. You can also down­load the TillEx­am Android App for con­ve­nient exam prepa­ra­tion on your mobile.

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